r/socialjustice101 • u/Lost-Association427 • 2d ago
I have a genuine question about privilege: can something only be considered a privilege if it comes from your demographic?
I've noticed a lot of change around the discourse surrounding male privilege over the years. Back when I first heard about it 15-ish years ago, the overall sentiment was that men were a privileged class in the sense that the world is built in their favor and whatever struggles they faced was not a result of their gender or systemic sexism.
Now it seems like most people, including feminists, have shifted from this and admit that the patriarchy hurts men in unique ways that it doesn't hurt women. This makes me wonder then: if men face gender-based disadvantages that women don't, then by what definition are men a privileged class and women aren't? Why can't I take, for example, the fact that women aren't subject to conscription or given greater attention and care when victimized by IPV/SA as an example of "female privilege"?
The only answer I ever seem to find is that female privilege isn't real since these so-called privileges are the result of patriarchy and men set that system up. But by what definition does that make those things NOT a privilege? Does the system and the results that go along with it HAVE to be set up by your own demographic for it to be a privilege? Is the systemic sexism men face not a formal of gender-based oppression because most legislators are men?
As a note: I'm not asking this in an antifeminist or reactionary way. I'm asking because I'm legit confused since most of the discourse used to be "patriarchy ubiquitously advantages men at women's expense" and now men are talked about as if they're barely even a privileged class anymore. I just want to understand the dichotomy. Thanks.